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QUESTION 1
When analyzing the SAP ECC order report for a planned order for a finished product, you discover that one of the assemblies will not be available in time for the scheduled final assembly because of automatic forward scheduling. Which planning procedure do you use to create a feasible production plan from a requirements planning perspective?

A. Interactive single-item planning for the delayed assembly
B. Multi-level single-item planning with the "simulation mode" option
C. Total planning online
D. Multi-level single-item planning with the "display material list" option

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What does SAP ERP mean?

A. SAP ERP is a planning system in which extended planning processes can be mapped.
B. SAP ERP is a system hardware that includes modules for purchasing, sales and distribution, materials management, production and so on.
C. SAP ERP is a technological platform, on the basis of which customer-specific extensions can be imported.
D. SAP ERP is an application that an enterprise can use to manage its business processes efficiently.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which functions can be triggered before releasing a production order? (Choose three)

A. Confirmation
B. Selection of a routing
C. Scheduling
D. Stock determination
E. Selection of a BOM

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 4
What features related to process orders can be used to fulfill Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) requirements? (Choose three)

A. Availability check
B. Digital signature
C. Resource selection
D. Electronic batch record
E. Approved master recipes

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements about consumption are correct? (Choose two)

A. Consumption takes place on the material level between the planned independent requirements and the planned orders.
B. Consumption parameters (consumption mode and consumption interval) can be set in the material master or in the MRP group.
C. Consumption is restructured with the planning run.
D. Consumption can take place between order reservations and planned independent requirements, depending on the strategy.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Where can you define the valid receivers for production order costs?

A. In the valuation variant
B. In the production scheduling profile
C. In the settlement profile
D. In the costing variant

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
A customer implements an HP StoreOnce Backup System by using a NAS share as the target for the backup of the application data. The solution runs for six months with daily incremental and weekly full backups. The customer is experiencing very low deduplication rates on this NAS share target and asks you to investigate. What is a possible reason for the low deduplication rates?

A. The files written to the NAS share are too large.
B. The deduplication is not enabled for the NAS share.
C. The housekeeping process has not run yet.
D. The files written to the NAS share are smaller than 24 MB.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A customer wants to configure HP Data Protector to back up data to the HP StoreOnce VSA environment. Which type of gateway is configured on a client with only a media agent?

A. Explicit client-side
B. Implicit source-side
C. Implicit target-side
D. Explicit server-side

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A customer is experiencing unreliable iSCSI connections to an HP StoreOnce Backup System. What do you have to examine?

A. Buffer size of the network adapter on the host
B. Block size of the iSCSI target device
C. Block size of the backup job
D. MTU size of all devices in the data path

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A customer wants to use HP StoreOnce Catalyst on an HP StoreOnce 4420. Which benefits can Catalyst provide to the customer? (Select two.)

A. Catalyst enables copies to be controlled by the backup application and multi-hop replication using Catalyst devices
B. Catalyst enables stores to be created on all HP StoreOnce models with 10 Gbit network connectivity, including HP StoreOnce VSA
C. enables low-bandwidth backup due to moving some of the deduplication processing to the source side without rehydration
D. enables a maximum of five source Catalyst stores to be copied into a single target Catalyst store on an HP StoreOnce 4420 single node system E. enables end users to control the whole backup operation in HP Data Protector through a hardware interface

Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
A customer wants to implement deduplication that meets these requirements:

1. Data is transferred over the network to the backup server
2. Data is held and deduplicated locally on the backup server.
3. Data is processed by the media agent, and then sent on to the HP
Catalyst store on a StoreOnce appliance.

Which type of deduplication should the customer implement?

A. target-side
B. compressed
C. server-side
D. post process

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A customer is currently using Cisco UCS to unite computing, networking, storage access, and virtualization. The customer is upgrading their data center and is open to working with another vendor for the upgrade. Which HP Converged System option is a viable alternative for this customer?

A. BladeSystem and Virtual Connect
B. Systems Insight Manager
C. AppSystem
D. HP OneView

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is a core building block in the HP Datacenter Care service solution?

A. Proactive Care Service
B. Life Cycle Service
C. Implementation Service
D. Personalized Support Service

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A traditional siloed application deployment across different cloud models results in multiple implementations and configurations for each lifecycle stage for each version of the application. Which HP Converged Cloud portfolio offering uses a model-based service design and re-usable infrastructure templates so that an application can be modeled once and provisioned across all cloud models?

A. Cloud OS
B. Cloud Service Automation
C. Matrix Operating Environment
D. CloudSystem Matrix

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which technology eliminates vendor lock-in and enables application portability in HP public clouds?

A. OpenStack
B. Virtualization
C. Kernel-based virtual machines
D. CloudStack

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A customer needs to update their CloudSystem Matrix software. Which cloud operation service offering should you recommend?

A. Proactive Care
B. Converged Cloud Support
C. Enhanced Premier
D. Datacenter Care

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Why is a hybrid cloud delivery model attractive to IT executives?

A. It offers the greatest variety when meeting SU\s and specific workload requirements.
B. It allows the greatest flexibility when transferring workloads between cloud implementations.
C. It addresses service delivery challenges in the most efficient and cost-effective way.
D. It is the best match for customer application configurations and performance requirements.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
How does the HP Converged Cloud delivery model differ from that of the competition?

A. Common architecture
B. Homogeneous approach
C. Single cloud delivery type
D. Siloed deployment

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A customer is currently using Cisco UCS to unite computing, networking, storage access, and virtualization. The customer is upgrading their data center and is open to working with another vendor for the upgrade. Which HP Converged System option is a viable alternative for this customer?

A. BladeSystem and Virtual Connect
B. Systems Insight Manager
C. AppSystem
D. HP OneView

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is a core building block in the HP Datacenter Care service solution?

A. Proactive Care Service
B. Life Cycle Service
C. Implementation Service
D. Personalized Support Service

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A traditional siloed application deployment across different cloud models results in multiple implementations and configurations for each lifecycle stage for each version of the application. Which HP Converged Cloud portfolio offering uses a model-based service design and re-usable infrastructure templates so that an application can be modeled once and provisioned across all cloud models?

A. Cloud OS
B. Cloud Service Automation
C. Matrix Operating Environment
D. CloudSystem Matrix

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which technology eliminates vendor lock-in and enables application portability in HP public clouds?

A. OpenStack
B. Virtualization
C. Kernel-based virtual machines
D. CloudStack

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A customer needs to update their CloudSystem Matrix software. Which cloud operation service offering should you recommend?

A. Proactive Care
B. Converged Cloud Support
C. Enhanced Premier
D. Datacenter Care

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Why is a hybrid cloud delivery model attractive to IT executives?

A. It offers the greatest variety when meeting SU\s and specific workload requirements.
B. It allows the greatest flexibility when transferring workloads between cloud implementations.
C. It addresses service delivery challenges in the most efficient and cost-effective way.
D. It is the best match for customer application configurations and performance requirements.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
How does the HP Converged Cloud delivery model differ from that of the competition?

A. Common architecture
B. Homogeneous approach
C. Single cloud delivery type
D. Siloed deployment

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A customer implements an HP StoreOnce Backup System by using a NAS share as the target for the backup of the application data. The solution runs for six months with daily incremental and weekly full backups. The customer is experiencing very low deduplication rates on this NAS share target and asks you to investigate. What is a possible reason for the low deduplication rates?

A. The files written to the NAS share are too large.
B. The deduplication is not enabled for the NAS share.
C. The housekeeping process has not run yet.
D. The files written to the NAS share are smaller than 24 MB.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A customer wants to configure HP Data Protector to back up data to the HP StoreOnce VSA environment. Which type of gateway is configured on a client with only a media agent?

A. Explicit client-side
B. Implicit source-side
C. Implicit target-side
D. Explicit server-side

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A customer is experiencing unreliable iSCSI connections to an HP StoreOnce Backup System. What do you have to examine?

A. Buffer size of the network adapter on the host
B. Block size of the iSCSI target device
C. Block size of the backup job
D. MTU size of all devices in the data path

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A customer wants to use HP StoreOnce Catalyst on an HP StoreOnce 4420. Which benefits can Catalyst provide to the customer? (Select two.)

A. Catalyst enables copies to be controlled by the backup application and multi-hop replication using Catalyst devices
B. Catalyst enables stores to be created on all HP StoreOnce models with 10 Gbit network connectivity, including HP StoreOnce VSA
C. enables low-bandwidth backup due to moving some of the deduplication processing to the source side without rehydration
D. enables a maximum of five source Catalyst stores to be copied into a single target Catalyst store on an HP StoreOnce 4420 single node system E. enables end users to control the whole backup operation in HP Data Protector through a hardware interface

Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
A customer wants to implement deduplication that meets these requirements:

1. Data is transferred over the network to the backup server
2. Data is held and deduplicated locally on the backup server.
3. Data is processed by the media agent, and then sent on to the HP
Catalyst store on a StoreOnce appliance.

Which type of deduplication should the customer implement?

A. target-side
B. compressed
C. server-side
D. post process

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which control, used to dynamically switch content, includes support to code the Dynamic Content display using a Simple Action, client-side or server-side JavaScript?

A. Switch
B. Dynamic Content
C. Multi-image Output
D. Dynamic View Panel

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about the Application Layout control?

A. The Application Layout control provides a consistent interface when added directly to each XPage in an application.
B. To render properly, the Application Layout control must implement one of the oneuiv2.1 themes or a theme that extends a oneuiv2.1 theme.
C. The Application Layout control includes a total of three facet areas for adding content (left, center and right columns) and three bar areas foricons, titles, links and drop down menus.
D. When the Application Layout control is enabled for an application each XPage will include a left, center and right column area with the samedimensions to provide a consistent user interface across the application.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
John added a Dynamic View Panel to the CustomersViews XPage to switch display to any one of several views in the Customers application. He set the pageName property to the CustomerDocument XPage to identify the XPage to open when a customer name is selected from the displayed view in the Dynamic View Panel control. What must John do to have the selected customer document open in read mode on the CustomerDocument XPage?

A. For the Dynamic View Panel, set the openDocAsReadonly to "true".
B. Nothing. The selected document in a Dynamic View Panel will by default open in read mode.
C. For the Domino Document data source on the CustomerDocument XPage set the openDocAsReadonly to "true".
D. Code the onColumnClick event of the Dynamic View Panel control with the Open Page simple action and set the target property to"openDocument".

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which statement is true for the Single Page Application control for use on a mobile XPage?

A. The XML tag for the Single Page Application control is .
B. The XML tag for the Single Page Application control is .
C. The Single Page Application control is used only when the mobile XPage includes a single mobile page.
D. There must be only one Single Page Application control as the container for all of the Application Page controls on the mobile XPage.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which three properties in the Dojo Text Box control are available in the Edit Box control? (Choose three.)

A. alt
B. trim
C. lang
D. type
E. header
F. inputType

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Which is a valid named facet area of the Application Layout control?

A. footerFacet
B. titleBarTabs
C. mastHeader
D. mainContent

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which statement is true regarding the Extension Library Tooltip control?

A. A developer is not allowed to place other data components in between the start and end tags.
B. To use the beforeContentLoad and afterContentLoad properties, a developer must set dynamicContent to true.
C. When the position property is set to auto, the tooltip calculates where it should display in relation to the element on the page.
D. To use the beforeContentLoad and afterContentLoad properties, a developer does need to set dynamic Content to false.

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Tyler has designed a viewMobilePage to display a listing of customer names from the CustomersByName view. During testing Tyler determined that to avoid scrolling he will need to restrict the number of customer names displayed on the viewMobilePage to ten. How can he do this?

A. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the control.
B. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the control.
C. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the control.
D. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the control.

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Michael has designed a mobile application with two mobile pages. For the first mobile page he set the pageName property to "page1" and for the second mobile page he set the pageName property to "page2". What server-side simple action can Michael add on the second page to navigate the mobile application user to the first page when touched?

A. Open Page
B. Open Mobile Page
C. Move To Mobile Page
D. Move To Application Page

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
When analyzing the SAP ECC order report for a planned order for a finished product, you discover that one of the assemblies will not be available in time for the scheduled final assembly because of automatic forward scheduling. Which planning procedure do you use to create a feasible production plan from a requirements planning perspective?

A. Interactive single-item planning for the delayed assembly
B. Multi-level single-item planning with the "simulation mode" option
C. Total planning online
D. Multi-level single-item planning with the "display material list" option

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What does SAP ERP mean?

A. SAP ERP is a planning system in which extended planning processes can be mapped.
B. SAP ERP is a system hardware that includes modules for purchasing, sales and distribution, materials management, production and so on.
C. SAP ERP is a technological platform, on the basis of which customer-specific extensions can be imported.
D. SAP ERP is an application that an enterprise can use to manage its business processes efficiently.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which functions can be triggered before releasing a production order? (Choose three)

A. Confirmation
B. Selection of a routing
C. Scheduling
D. Stock determination
E. Selection of a BOM

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 4
What features related to process orders can be used to fulfill Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) requirements? (Choose three)

A. Availability check
B. Digital signature
C. Resource selection
D. Electronic batch record
E. Approved master recipes

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements about consumption are correct? (Choose two)

A. Consumption takes place on the material level between the planned independent requirements and the planned orders.
B. Consumption parameters (consumption mode and consumption interval) can be set in the material master or in the MRP group.
C. Consumption is restructured with the planning run.
D. Consumption can take place between order reservations and planned independent requirements, depending on the strategy.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Where can you define the valid receivers for production order costs?

A. In the valuation variant
B. In the production scheduling profile
C. In the settlement profile
D. In the costing variant

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which term or phrase is synonymous with value for money?

A. excellent reliability and superior print quality
B. low purchase price
C. good margin
D. warranty

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Why is the term "Compatible Cartridge" confusing for customers?

A. It is a term for a Remanufactured cartridge.
B. It is a term used for Refilled, Remanufactured and Clone cartridges.
C. It is a term for a product with a low purchasing price.
D. It is a term for a 100% new cartridge.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the name of the HP print cartridge return and recycle program?

A. HP Earth Care
B. HP Environmental Care Pack
C. HP Planet Partner
D. HP Go Recycle

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
When the user creates a maintenance plan for a call object (order), which value in the planning data determines the order type?

A. Priority
B. Maintenance activity type
C. Maintenance planner group
D. Main work center

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A maintenance technician replaces a defective counter with a new counter. Before the users can create a standard measuring document for the new counter, what step(s) must they perform?

A. Create a new technical object to represent the new measuring point.
B. Create a special measuring document and set the Counter Replacement indicator.
C. Dismantle the old measuring point and create a new measuring point.
D. Create a new measuring point and change the measuring point from which the measurement reading was transferred.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A user has planned an operation with labor costs and material costs; however, the material cost element is not assigned to a value category. Where do the material costs appear in the value categories for the order?

A. In the overhead value category
B. In a new, automatically created value category
C. In the unassigned value category
D. In the internal activity value category

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following always produces up-to-the-minute costing information for maintenance orders?

A. A standard analysis from the Plant Maintenance Information System (PMIS)
B. A standard query in SAP Net Weaver Business Warehouse
C. A maintenance order list
D. A shift report based on shift notes

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following are prerequisites for business completion? (Choose two)

A. The order must have actual costs.
B. The order must be fully settled.
C. The balance of the order must be zero.
D. The order must have planned costs.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
What information does the value category provide in the maintenance order?

A. The costs details for individual technical objects
B. The costs by work center
C. The material costs by valuation category
D. A summary of costs for multiple cost elements

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following Customizing settings is required to assign a notification to a maintenance order operation?

A. Assignment of operations to all object list entries active
B. Assignment of order type to notification type
C. Maintain indicator for notification data on order header
D. Create default value profiles for general order data

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which two of the following are the main differentiators of Cisco Collaboration against the competition? (Choose two)

A. Based on a strong IP network, Cisco offers a fully integrated collaboration architecture.
B. Cisco Collaboration is design to support interoperability with the solutions of other vendors.
C. Cisco solutions allow customers the highest operational agility, more than competitive solutions.
D. Cisco is open to integration or being integrated in any other collaboration solution seamlessly.
E. Cisco growth is organic and not based on large mergers with other leading vendors.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which two characteristics would you describe as key differentiators for the Cisco ISR router compared to the competition? (Choose two)

A. Integration of WLAN access points
B. Route network traffic down alternative paths to avoid congestion, which switches cannot do
C. Support of analog and digital voice connections
D. Decoupling the delivery of software from hardware on optional service modules
E. Delivery of innovative security services as part of the self-defending network at wire speed performance

Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Which two of the following are concerns that an operations manager may have in making a decision on Cisco Collaboration? (Choose two)

A. Reliability of the company infrastructure
B. Changing customer demands
C. Go-to-market time of new products or services
D. Fast adoption of organizational changes
E. How to engage with external suppliers quickly

Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Which statement best describes medianet?

A. Medianet enables Cisco Collaboration network management.
B. Medianet is the network infrastructure layer of video networks.
C. Medianet enables integration of video infrastructure with network infrastructure.
D. Medianet is an intelligent network that is optimized for rich media.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements best describes the concept of the value chain?

A. It defines relations between the supplies between distribution chains through the core processes of an organization.
B. It describes connections and relations between the observed organization and its suppliers, channel partners, and customers.
C. It helps to explain how a company operates and which activities create value.
D. It defines methods on how supporting activities of an organization can bring increased profit margins.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two of the following are the main differentiators of Cisco Collaboration against the competition? (Choose two.) Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following:

A. Cisco heritage is in creating robust, secure IP networks. Cisco's Collaboration Architecture is a natural, seamlessly integrated suite of applications which reside atop those IP networks.
B. Cisco growth is organic and not based on large mergers with other leading vendors.
C. Cisco's Collaboration solutions are designed to support interoperability with the solutions of other vendors.
D. Cisco solutions allow customers high operational agility, which competitive solutions do not.

Answer: CD

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